Step 1 :The function \(f(x)=(x-3)^{2}\) is not one-to-one because for any given \(x\) value, there are two possible \(y\) values.
Step 2 :For example, if \(x=4\), then \(y=(4-3)^{2}=1\), but if \(x=2\), then \(y=(2-3)^{2}=1\) as well.
Step 3 :Therefore, the function does not have an inverse.
Step 4 :Final Answer: \(\boxed{\text{(D) The function is not one-to-one.}}\)